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WGU Cloud-Deployment-and-Operations Exam Syllabus Topics:
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NEW QUESTION # 21
(Which service enables a company to enforce and manage governance rules across multiple AWS accounts?)
- A. Security Hub
- B. Control Tower
- C. Systems Manager
- D. GuardDuty
Answer: B
Explanation:
AWS Control Tower enables a company to enforce and manage governance rules across multiple AWS accounts by setting up a landing zone with preconfigured policies for security, compliance, and operations. It simplifies multi-account management. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section
6.5, Control Tower) states, "Control Tower provides a centralized solution to establish and enforce governance rules across multiple accounts, using guardrails and a landing zone to ensure compliance with organizational policies." Security Hub, GuardDuty, and Systems Manager do not offer this multi-account governance capability.
NEW QUESTION # 22
(Which performance optimization method must be used when uploading files larger than 5 GB to S3?)
- A. Transfer Acceleration
- B. Multipart uploads
- C. Glacier Select
- D. Intelligent-Tiering
Answer: B
Explanation:
Multipart uploads must be used when uploading files larger than 5 GB to Amazon S3, as this method splits the file into smaller parts for parallel upload, improving reliability and performance. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 2.1, S3 Uploads) states, "For files exceeding 5 GB, multipart upload is required in S3, allowing the file to be divided into parts (minimum 5 MB each) for concurrent uploads, ensuring efficient and resumable transfers." Glacier Select, Transfer Acceleration, and Intelligent-Tiering are not designed for this upload optimization.
NEW QUESTION # 23
(Which AWS monitoring feature is used to process events using AWS Lambda?)
- A. Logs
- B. Targets
- C. Metrics
- D. Rules
Answer: D
Explanation:
The AWS monitoring feature used to process events with AWS Lambda is CloudWatch Events, specifically through the use of rules. Rules define the events to monitor (e.g., based on event patterns) and specify targets like AWS Lambda functions to process those events. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 4.3, CloudWatch Events) explains that rules are the core component for event-driven architectures, enabling automation by linking events to Lambda for processing. Metrics, targets, and logs are related but not the primary feature for this function.
NEW QUESTION # 24
(Which type of support plan provides a technical account manager and full use of Trusted Advisor?)
- A. Enterprise
- B. Developer
- C. Business
- D. Standard
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Enterprise support plan provides a technical account manager (TAM) and full use of Trusted Advisor, offering proactive guidance and comprehensive access to all checks. This plan is designed for large-scale, mission-critical workloads. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 6.4, AWS Support Plans) states, "The Enterprise support plan includes a dedicated Technical Account Manager and full Trusted Advisor access, providing 24/7 support and proactive optimization recommendations." Developer, Standard, and Business plans offer limited or no TAM support and partial Trusted Advisor access.
NEW QUESTION # 25
(How are custom metrics grouped in CloudWatch?)
- A. Service
- B. Date
- C. Namespace
- D. Value
Answer: C
Explanation:
In Amazon CloudWatch, custom metrics are organized and grouped using namespaces. A namespace is a container for CloudWatch metrics that allows you to isolate and categorize metrics from different applications or services. According to the WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 4.1, CloudWatch Metrics), each custom metric must be assigned to a namespace, which acts as a unique identifier to prevent naming collisions and facilitate metric management. Options like Service, Date, and Value are not used for grouping metrics in this context.
NEW QUESTION # 26
(Which AWS service is used to provide remote workers with secure access to AWS resources?)
- A. NAT instance
- B. Transit Gateway
- C. Client VPN
- D. Network Firewall
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
AWS Client VPN is used to provide remote workers with secure access to AWS resources by establishing a VPN connection to the VPC, ensuring encrypted access to private networks. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 3.2, Client VPN) states, "Client VPN enables secure remote access to AWS resources within a VPC, using mutual authentication and encryption to protect data for remote workers." Transit Gateway manages inter-VPC routing, Network Firewall filters traffic, and NAT instances handle outbound internet access, none of which are designed for remote worker access.
NEW QUESTION # 27
(A company is developing an application with the following requirements: * Amazon EC2 instances must be restricted to Free Tier-eligible types. * Instances of unapproved types must be terminated automatically.
Which two services should be used? Choose 2 answers.)
- A. Systems Manager
- B. OpsWorks
- C. Config
- D. Launch Wizard
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
To meet the requirements of restricting EC2 instances to Free Tier-eligible types and automatically terminating unapproved instances, AWS Systems Manager and AWS Config should be used. Systems Manager can enforce instance compliance through automation documents that monitor and terminate non- compliant instances. AWS Config provides continuous monitoring and evaluation of resource configurations against defined rules, such as those limiting instance types to Free Tier-eligible options (e.g., t2.micro or t3.
micro). The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 6.1, AWS Config and Systems Manager) notes, "AWS Config can be configured with a rule to detect non-Free Tier EC2 instances, while Systems Manager Automation can execute a termination script based on Config findings." OpsWorks and Launch Wizard are not designed for this specific compliance and automation use case.
NEW QUESTION # 28
(Which action must be used to create a metric filter in the Amazon CloudWatch console?)
- A. Specify a stream
- B. Enable an alarm
- C. Define a trace
- D. Select a log group
Answer: D
Explanation:
To create a metric filter in the Amazon CloudWatch console, the first step is to select a log group from which the log data will be analyzed. A log group contains log streams, and metric filters are applied to the log data within these groups to extract metrics based on patterns. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 4.2, CloudWatch Logs) specifies that the process begins by navigating to the CloudWatch console, selecting a log group, and then defining the filter pattern. Actions like enabling an alarm, defining a trace, or specifying a stream are subsequent or unrelated steps.
NEW QUESTION # 29
(An administrator successfully accesses an EC2 instance via SSH from a local computer then stops it and starts it. Following the restart, the EC2 instance is no longer accessible. Which solution should be used to resolve the issue?)
- A. Add a route to the route table associated with the EC2 instance subnet
- B. Change the IP address used to connect to the EC2 instance
- C. Add a rule to the security group associated with the NIC of the EC2 instance
- D. Change the port used to connect to EC2 instance
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
After stopping and starting an EC2 instance, the public IP address may change (unless an Elastic IP is attached), but the security group rules remain intact. If the instance is no longer accessible via SSH, it's likely due to an inbound rule (e.g., for port 22) not being correctly configured or applied. Adding or verifying a rule in the security group associated with the network interface (NIC) to allow SSH (port 22) from the administrator's IP resolves this. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 3.2, Security Groups) states, "Stopping and starting an EC2 instance may require verifying or adding an inbound SSH rule (port 22) in the security group if connectivity is lost due to IP or rule misconfiguration." Route table or IP changes are not the primary issue here.
NEW QUESTION # 30
(A company uses KMS for key management. The company has a requirement to ensure that cryptographic material is not used longer than a year. Which solution should be used to meet this requirement with the least amount of effort?)
- A. Move keys from KMS to CloudHSM
- B. Enable automatic key rotation in KMS
- C. Develop a custom key encryption protocol for KMS
- D. Write a Lambda function to replace keys in KMS
Answer: B
Explanation:
Enabling automatic key rotation in AWS Key Management Service (KMS) is the least effort solution to ensure cryptographic material is not used longer than a year. KMS automatically rotates the cryptographic material of symmetric customer master keys (CMKs) every 365 days, meeting the requirement without manual intervention. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 6.3, KMS) states,
"Automatic key rotation in KMS rotates the backing key material every year for symmetric CMKs, providing a low-effort way to comply with key usage limits." Moving to CloudHSM, custom protocols, or Lambda functions require more effort and complexity.
NEW QUESTION # 31
(Which solution should be used to identify and shut down idle EC2 instances in an AWS account?)
- A. CloudTrail
- B. CloudSearch
- C. CloudWatch
- D. CloudFront
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
CloudWatch should be used to identify and shut down idle EC2 instances by monitoring metrics such as CPU utilization or network activity. Custom alarms can be set to trigger an AWS Lambda function or Systems Manager automation to terminate idle instances, optimizing costs. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 4.1, CloudWatch Metrics) states, "CloudWatch can monitor EC2 instance metrics like CPUUtilization; an alarm can be configured to invoke a Lambda function to terminate idle instances, ensuring cost efficiency." CloudFront, CloudSearch, and CloudTrail are not designed for this monitoring and automation task.
NEW QUESTION # 32
(Which Performance Insights view provides information on the hardware resource that may be causing a bottleneck?)
- A. Hosts
- B. Wait event
- C. Statement
- D. Users
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Wait event view in Amazon RDS Performance Insights provides information on hardware resources (e.g., CPU, I/O, memory) that may be causing bottlenecks by showing wait times for database operations. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 7.2, Performance Insights) states, "The Wait event view in Performance Insights identifies resource bottlenecks (e.g., I/O wait times) by analyzing wait states, helping optimize database performance on hardware resources." Users, Hosts, and Statement views focus on different aspects and do not directly address hardware bottlenecks.
NEW QUESTION # 33
(An administrator plans to deploy a database to AWS that supports the following: multiple Availability Zones, a standby database instance that provides failover support, a database instance that allows only read-only connections. Which two database solutions should the administrator use? Choose 2 answers.)
- A. Amazon RDS Multi-AZ DB instance
- B. Amazon RDS Multi-AZ DB cluster
- C. Amazon Aurora DB cluster with multi-master replication
- D. Amazon Aurora DB instance with Aurora Replica
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
To meet the requirements, the administrator should use an Amazon RDS Multi-AZ DB instance for multiple Availability Zones and failover support, and an Amazon Aurora DB instance with Aurora Replica for a read- only connection. The RDS Multi-AZ configuration automatically provisions a standby instance in a different AZ for failover, while Aurora Replicas provide read-only instances for scaling read traffic. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 7.1, RDS and Aurora) states, "RDS Multi-AZ deploys a standby instance across AZs for failover, and Aurora Replicas are read-only instances that enhance performance by offloading read traffic from the primary instance." Options A and D are incorrect as multi- master replication and Multi-AZ clusters do not align with the read-only requirement.
NEW QUESTION # 34
(What is the advantage of maximizing the time to live of the cache in CloudFront?)
- A. Improve a disaster recovery plan
- B. Minimize requests to the origin
- C. Improve security measures
- D. Facilitate a high number of requests
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Maximizing the time to live (TTL) of the cache in Amazon CloudFront reduces the frequency of requests to the origin server by serving content from edge locations for a longer period, lowering latency and costs. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 4.4, CloudFront Caching) states, "A higher TTL in CloudFront caching minimizes origin requests by keeping objects in edge caches longer, reducing load on the origin server and optimizing performance and cost." Facilitating high request volumes, improving disaster recovery, and enhancing security are not primary benefits of maximizing TTL.
NEW QUESTION # 35
(An administrator needs to create Systems Manager Automation documents to take action based on AWS Config rules. Which two file formats should be used? Choose 2 answers.)
- A. CSV
- B. JSON
- C. YAML
- D. XML
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Systems Manager Automation documents can be created using JSON or YAML file formats to define workflows and actions based on AWS Config rules. These formats allow administrators to specify the steps and parameters for automation tasks, such as remediation actions triggered by Config rule evaluations. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 5.1, Systems Manager Automation) states that both JSON and YAML are supported formats for writing Automation documents, providing flexibility in scripting automation logic. XML and CSV are not supported formats for this purpose.
NEW QUESTION # 36
(Which solution sends DNS queries to separate AWS compute instances?)
- A. AWS Elastic Beanstalk
- B. Amazon CloudWatch
- C. Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling
- D. Amazon Route 53
Answer: D
Explanation:
Amazon Route 53 is the AWS solution that sends DNS queries to separate AWS compute instances by leveraging routing policies to distribute traffic across multiple resources. It acts as a scalable Domain Name System (DNS) service, directing queries to healthy instances based on configurations like latency or weighted routing. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 3.1, Route 53) states, "Route 53 uses DNS to route end-user requests to multiple AWS compute instances, supporting features like health checks and traffic distribution." Elastic Beanstalk, CloudWatch, and EC2 Auto Scaling do not perform DNS query routing.
NEW QUESTION # 37
(A company configures the CloudFront caching TTL to the following settings: Min: 0, Max: 172800. An administrator updates the Cache-Control setting to 432000. However, objects are only cached for 48 hours.
What is required to ensure objects are cached for up to 120 hours?)
- A. Configure the Min setting for 432000
- B. Configure the Max setting for 432000
- C. Configure the expiration setting for 172800
- D. Configure the Cache-Control setting for 172800
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
In Amazon CloudFront, the caching TTL is controlled by the minimum and maximum TTL settings, with the maximum TTL (in seconds) capping the cache duration. The current Max TTL is 172800 seconds (48 hours), and the Cache-Control setting of 432000 seconds (120 hours) is ignored because it exceeds the Max TTL. To cache objects for up to 120 hours, the Max setting must be configured to 432000 seconds. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 4.4, CloudFront Caching) states, "The maximum TTL in CloudFront settings (e.g., 172800 seconds) overrides any higher Cache-Control value; to allow 120 hours (432000 seconds), the Max TTL must be set accordingly." Adjusting Min, expiration, or Cache-Control alone does not resolve this.
NEW QUESTION # 38
(Which solution is used to protect a server from Layer 7 attacks?)
- A. KMS key rotation
- B. CloudWatch
- C. WAF
- D. Shield
Answer: C
Explanation:
AWS WAF (Web Application Firewall) is used to protect a server from Layer 7 (application layer) attacks, such as SQL injection or cross-site scripting, by filtering HTTP/HTTPS traffic based on defined rules. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 6.2, AWS WAF) states, "WAF protects web applications at Layer 7 by inspecting and blocking malicious requests, such as those involving SQL injection or XSS, when integrated with ALB or CloudFront." Shield protects against DDoS (Layer 3/4), CloudWatch monitors metrics, and KMS key rotation manages encryption, none of which address Layer 7 attacks.
NEW QUESTION # 39
(Which component should be used to configure email notifications for a trigger by Amazon Made?)
- A. CodeDeploy
- B. EventBridge
- C. Simple Queue Service
- D. Elastic Kubernetes Service
Answer: B
Explanation:
Amazon EventBridge should be used to configure email notifications for a trigger by Amazon Made, as it can route events to targets like Amazon SNS (Simple Notification Service) for email delivery. EventBridge integrates with AWS services to handle event-driven notifications. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 4.3, EventBridge) states, "EventBridge can be configured to send events from Amazon Made to SNS, enabling email notifications by subscribing an email endpoint to the SNS topic." SQS, EKS, and CodeDeploy do not support this notification configuration.
NEW QUESTION # 40
(A company that uses five Elastic IP addresses does not want to request more from AWS. Which solution should be used to route requests to a healthy endpoint?)
- A. Register a DNS name to an auto-assigned public IP address
- B. Adjust the TTL of the IP packets
- C. Use Systems Manager to update endpoints
- D. Edit the route table for the VPC
Answer: A
Explanation:
To route requests to a healthy endpoint without requesting additional Elastic IP addresses, the company should register a DNS name to an auto-assigned public IP address using a service like Route 53. This leverages dynamic DNS to distribute traffic, reducing reliance on fixed EIPs. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 3.1, Route 53) states, "Registering a DNS name with an auto-assigned public IP in Route 53 allows traffic routing to healthy instances, avoiding the need for additional Elastic IP addresses." TTL adjustment, route table edits, and Systems Manager are not relevant solutions.
NEW QUESTION # 41
(What should be configured in Systems Manager to set the error threshold for automation documents?)
- A. Resource group
- B. Session preferences
- C. Rate control
- D. Maintenance windows
Answer: C
Explanation:
In AWS Systems Manager, the error threshold for automation documents is configured using rate control.
Rate control allows administrators to define the maximum number of errors or concurrent executions that can occur before an automation task is throttled or stopped, ensuring system stability. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 5.1, Systems Manager Automation) explicitly states, "Rate control settings in Automation documents can be used to specify the maximum number of errors allowed during execution, helping to manage error thresholds effectively." Resource groups, session preferences, and maintenance windows do not directly address error thresholds.
NEW QUESTION # 42
(What is a patch baseline attached to if it is not defined in Patch Manager?)
- A. Default patch group
- B. Patch process
- C. Baseline data set
- D. Accelerate patch baseline
Answer: A
Explanation:
If a patch baseline is not explicitly defined in Patch Manager, it is attached to the default patch group. This default group applies a preconfigured baseline with AWS-recommended patches, ensuring basic compliance for instances without custom baselines. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section
5.2, Patch Manager) states, "If no custom patch baseline is defined, instances are associated with the default patch group, which uses AWS-provided baseline settings for automatic patch approval." Options A, C, and D are not valid attachments for patch baselines.
NEW QUESTION # 43
(What is used to change stacks across multiple accounts and Regions in a single operation?)
- A. Stack policies
- B. Nested stacks
- C. StackSets
- D. StackInstance
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
StackSets are used to change stacks across multiple AWS accounts and regions in a single operation, enabling centralized management of infrastructure deployments. StackSets allow administrators to create, update, or delete stacks consistently across specified accounts and regions. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 5.4, StackSets) states, "StackSets provide the capability to manage and update stacks across multiple accounts and regions with a single operation, streamlining multi-region deployments." StackInstance, nested stacks, and stack policies do not support this multi-account, multi-region functionality.
NEW QUESTION # 44
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